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| Author | Message | | | Posted on Thu Feb 01, 2007 07:57:53 | |
| | "So many kisses are enough and more than enough for mad Catullus to kiss you"
Why is it that the plural basia is put with the singular est? Could someone please explain this to me?
Is it possible to translate it this way with an accusitive subject?
"That you kiss so many kisses is enough and more than enough for mad Catullus" | |
| | | Posted at Sat Feb 03, 2007 19:27:32 | Quote |
| | | A more literal rendition would be, "It is enough and more [than enough] (or enough and beyond) for crazy Catullus to kiss you many kisses". | |
| | | Posted at Mon Feb 05, 2007 17:46:28 | Quote |
| | | I thought of that, but wouldn't te have to be tibi if you want to make it an indirect object like that? Isn't this basic grammar? I mean when "Tim gives you many dogs", "you" cannot be a direct object. | |
| | | Posted at Tue Feb 06, 2007 05:28:52 | Quote |
| | | Quote: | | | | | I thought of that, but wouldn't te have to be tibi if you want to make it an indirect object like that? Isn't this basic grammar? I mean when "Tim gives you many dogs", "you" cannot be a direct object. |
No, not quite. He's not giving Lesbia kisses, but kissing her kisses. The word "kisses" is already implies as the internal accusative of basio, and te is the direct object. It's a peculiarity of Latin.
Chris | |
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